Out of the four sources I studied, the CNN.com article was the only news source to claim that President Kacynski was "killed" in the plane crash (in the actual news headlines). The AlJazeera article, written in English, mentions that the President "dies" in the headline (but later gives details of the crash - "... killing all 135 passengers on board." The Korea ChosonIlbo article's headline reads: "폴란드 대통령 부부 탄 비행기 추락, 97명 전원사망" which literally translates into "Poland President and First Lady in Plane Crash, 97 person powerful disaster." The term "kill" or even "death" is entirely absent from the headline. The ElMundo similarly avoids mentioning the Spanish verb "to kill" - matar. ElMundo's headline reads: "Muere el presidente del Polonia al estrellarse su avión en Rusia" - "The President of Poland dies in his airplane crash in Russia." The language within the article avoids mentioning "kill" as well: su gabinete presidencial y los principales jefes del Ejército del país han perdido la vida ..." - the presidential cabinet and the Supreme judges of the country have lost their lives. Another example reads: "En la catástrofe han muerto 97 personas," which in this context loosely translates into "the catastrophe has killed 97 personas," but with the verb "morir" which holds a different connotation to the verb "matar." All three foreign sources' headlines differ significantly to the CNN article's headlines, which reads "Plane crash kills Polish president."
A plane crash killed the Polish president. If this statement were translated into most other non-English languages, the connotations would imply that the plane crash - a living, sentient being - had the motive and capability to murder the Polish president. I think that's why most foreign news sources avoided using the verb "to kill" directly in its respective language. So why do reputable American news sources, written in American English, use the term "to kill" so loosely? This frequent use of "kill" surfaces in other news reports across all networks as well. Just this week, I heard on TV that a car crash "killed" an entire family and that an individual "was killed" in an apartment fire (this is not to say that American news sources refer to death with the verb "to kill" exclusively, just more frequently than foreign sources).
For some reason, Americans seem to be obsessed with what I like to call "violent language." The use of the verb "to kill" is only a small sampling of this linguistic tendency. For example, the government tends to label many of its programs with the prefix "War on-." The "War on Poverty" was supposed to destroy the enemy that was underprivileged or unemployed families and individuals living in America. The "War on Terror" insisted on defining a seemingly vast, unidentifiable enemy.
Why do Americans feel it is necessary to assign blame (to some unknown, unidentifiable force) in accidents such as plane crashes or fires? Why do Americans need to define the enemy and contribute to the "us" vs "them" attitude through language? It's certainly an interesting linguistic pattern that I look forward to discussing more in depth in class tomorrow.
Yihwan, interesting claim that the US media has a propensity for "violent language." Event hough the media has no problem using such language, few news channels (if any) show graphic images of war zones or the arrival of American soldiers wounded or killed in the wars (although this pattern is changing since the start of President Obama term). Why do you think the words of violence are used by images are not? Do you think words carry less or more meaning than images when covering accidents, wars, fights, etc.?
ReplyDelete